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aliquis and aliqui Junya 08/28/07
    Thank you. your answer was interesting, because I don't know anything about Latin language history. I just started last year.

    (I posted this as a follow-up to that privious question. But Answerway seems not to have notified you by email, which happens often in this site. So I repost this.)

    The privious question was
    "In Thomas' writing there are places where aliquis(pronoun) is used like aliqui(adjective). Aliquis can be used that way? Or am I misreading?"

    And you answered,


    Where is unclear? Where I'm concerned is,

    quod est aliquis alius sensus cognoscitivus sensibilium communium

    This aliquis is, I think, used as aliqui modifying "sense", so it means "a" sense, or "one" sense, or "a certain" sense.

    My translation of the passage.
    "there is a(aliqui, not aliquis) sense, another sense, which recognize the common sensibles."

    But it would be ok if it is aliquis.
    "something(aliquis) is that another sense you are speaking that can recognize common sensibles."

      Clarification/Follow-up by lean179 on 08/28/07 3:20 am:
      Hi again,

      this is a follow-up.

      'Sensus' belongs to the 4th declension, that has the same form, 'sensus', for both nominative and genitive singular, plus for nominative and accusative plurall. In other words, 'aliqui sensus' should be a nominative plural only, according to the rules of classical Latin, as in Cicero and others.

      But there are examples of a different form for the pronoun and adjective in Quintilianus, who states: 'aliqui sensus vehemens et acer' it is a nominative singular, because the two adjectives (vehemens & acer) are in the singular too; this occurrence is justifying your doubt and question. Quntilianus lived in the 1st century A.D., therefore he lived in the same period of time as other classical Latin writers; his writings were widely studied in Middle Ages.

      Why these two alternative forms, one for the pronoun and one for the adjective in Quintilianus, but not in Cicero, Vergilius and others? This is a question, that would require a deeper research.

      What is my conclusion? It is that Thomas Aquinas followed the grammatical rules of Cicero and other Latin authors; in other words, he was familiar with the writings of these authors. This is another point deserving a deeper research: the Latin language models followed by Thomas Aquinas.

 
Summary of Answers Received Answered On Answered By Average Rating
1. Dear Asker, as I already wrote in my answer, 'aliquis...
08/28/07 lean179Excellent or Above Average Answer
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