Clarification/Follow-up by tomder55 on 03/01/06 6:49 pm:
in the words of 'the great one'Marl L.Levin

Can you tell me why U.S. companies can sell certain technologies to Britain but not to, say, the UAE? Is it because our export-control system is racist? Or is it because the administration recognizes differences among the world's governments? Should we change our export control regime to end the disperate treatment of countries, such as many in the Middle East, to demonstrate our thanks for their support in the war on terrorism? Why can't these countries be trusted to use the same technologies we sell to Great Britain and most European countries? Is it because of racism? I note that neither the White House nor the Commerce, State and Defense Departments — which oversee export controls — have eliminated these export distinctions. Why not?

Clarification/Follow-up by ETWolverine on 03/01/06 9:45 pm:
Gotta love the Great One, the Professor, Mark Levin. He has a knack for getting to the main point quickly.

Elliot

Clarification/Follow-up by jocase on 03/02/06 6:25 am:
I realize that our buds don't remain friendly forever. Actually we seem to stay friendly as long as we can use them. Not that there's anything wrong with that.

So if the deal with the UAE falls through, who would you all like to see running the ports?

Clarification/Follow-up by tomder55 on 03/02/06 6:07 pm:
that is really the problem . There are no domestic companies comparable .Hillary can introduce laws requiring domestic ownership ;and I think it is a sound long term solution ;but in the interm there needs to be an immediate solution ;and that means foreign management of the ports.